if a man can do a work in 32 days, in how many days will 24 men complete the
same work?
☞want a relevent answer
☞wrong answer will be reported
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if a man can do a work in 32 days, in how many days will 24 men complete the
same work?
☞want a relevent answer
☞wrong answer will be reported
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Answer:
One man does 1/32 of the work in one day.
24 men will do 24/32 of the work in one day.
It will take 32/24, or 1 1/3 days, for 24 men to get the job done.
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It's an inverse variation question.
Use this formula- x1×y1=x2×y2,
Or you can use the second formula-x1/x2=y2/y1,
Where if x increases y will proportionately decrease or vice versa. That's an inverse variation.
SO I'll use the second formula.
X1/x2=y2/y1
Let x be days and y be men.
X1=32 days
Y1= 1 man
X2=x2 (we have to find this)
Y2=24 men
X1/x2=y2/y1 (second formula)
32/x2=24/1
Cross multiply now ,so we get……
24x2=32×1
Therefore x2=32/24 days.